When the curl is nonzero, we get the full Faraday's Law and the full Lorentz force on an electric charge. To get this result, you must have used Griffiths' transformation, where the matrix. F = μ 0 4 π q m, 1 q m, 2 r 2 r ^ 1 → 2. As yet there is no evidence for the existence of magnetic monopoles, but they are interesting theoretically. ( fe fm) ( f e f m) can represent (cqe qm) … You now have the expression for the force on a magnetic monopole (a particle with magnetic charge but no electric charge). If you have two magnetic monopoles of magnetic charges q m, 1 and q m, 2, separated by a distance r along the separation vector r ^ 1 → 2 pointing from 1 to 2, then the magnetic force exerted by magnetic monopole 1 on magnetic monopole 2 is.
is the electrostatic force when Faraday's Law has a zero-curl Electric Field. Because it takes two to tango, and linear electric force and rotational magnetic force is what you see when two “spinors” interact like counter-rotating vortices. If they have no initial relative motion, they move directly towards another. Magnetic monopole, hypothetical particle with a magnetic charge, a property analogous to an electric charge. By analogy, consider the zero-electric-current Ampere-Maxwell Law to form the analogue of the Lorentz force for a magnetic charge. And because the existence of a magnetic monopole would imply a duality between electricity and magnetism, the theory suggesting magnetic monopoles becomes almost intoxicating. As implied by its name, the magnetic monopole consists of a single pole, as opposed to the dipole, which is comprised of two magnetic poles.